The wife of Prince Charles is "HRH The Princess Charles, Duchess of Rothesay, Countess of Carrick, Baroness Renfrew and Princess of Scotland" in Scotland.
The last two are simply styles reflecting the ancient offices of the heir to the Scottish throne, which are not titles in the Peerage of Scotland.
Yes. Charles was "HRH Prince Charles of Edinburgh" until his mother succeeded to the throne in 1952. At that point, he automatically became "HRH The Prince Charles, Duke of Cornwall, Duke of Rothesay, Earl of Carrick, Baron of Renfrew, Lord of the Isles, Prince & Great Steward of Scotland" as the eldest son and heir of The Sovereign.
In 1958, his mother created him "Prince of Wales and Earl of Chester".
The last two are simply styles reflecting the ancient offices of the heir to the Scottish throne, which are not titles in the Peerage of Scotland.
Would Prince Charles have become The Prince Charles and The Duke of Cornwall immediately after George VI's death? Or would he have remained Prince Charles until his mother's coronation?
Yes. Charles was "HRH Prince Charles of Edinburgh" until his mother succeeded to the throne in 1952. At that point, he automatically became "HRH The Prince Charles, Duke of Cornwall, Duke of Rothesay, Earl of Carrick, Baron of Renfrew, Lord of the Isles, Prince & Great Steward of Scotland" as the eldest son and heir of The Sovereign.
In 1958, his mother created him "Prince of Wales and Earl of Chester".
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