Title for Camilla


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tiaraprin said:
I don't like Camilla and Charles and never will. Their actions were the catalyst for the breakdown of the monarchy in the 1990's.
Of course. Only Charles and Camilla had an affair. Maybe someone shoudl send a note to James Hewitt that his affair with Diana never happened and that it's all been in his head. :rolleyes:
And of course Diana's public whining sessions did nothing to improve the image of the monarchy either.
tiaraprin said:
Camilla has never said she was sorry for what she did.
Maybe Camilla was waiting to take a lead from Diana and waiting for Diana to say sorry to Julia Carling first.

tiaraprin said:
Perhaps if she hadn't done what she had, Diana wouldn't have done what she did. Camilla sinned first.
Does "being first" count when it comes to sinning? Here I was raised to think that sinning was sinning. Period. So if my friend steals a chocolate bar first it won't matter if I steal one after her. I get it now. :rolleyes:
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Let's stop this, please. I know there's controversy over Camilla, and I think we're all fairly clear about which posters can't stand Camilla and can't stand Charles, but there's no need to derail every blessed thread with this argument.

Some people find the notion of Queen Camilla abhorrent; other people find the notion of wishing an early death on Charles abhorrent. People are just going to have to learn to live with the fact that others don't share their opinions, and to stop provoking needless arguments about it.

Elspeth

British Royals moderator
 
Genevieve said:
Of course. Only Charles and Camilla had an affair. Maybe someone shoudl send a note to James Hewitt that his affair with Diana never happened and that it's all been in his head. :rolleyes:
And of course Diana's public whining sessions did nothing to improve the image of the monarchy either.
Maybe Camilla was waiting to take a lead from Diana and waiting for Diana to say sorry to Julia Carling first.
Does "being first" count when it comes to sinning? Here I was raised to think that sinning was sinning. Period. So if my friend steals a chocolate bar first it won't matter if I steal one after her. I get it now. :rolleyes:
I will no longer rise to your bait. Go ahead and think what you like. You just wish to stir up trouble and bait the Diana loyalists.
 
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tiaraprin said:
I will no longer rise to your bait. Go ahead and think what you like. You just wish to stir up trouble and bait the Diana loyalists.
Why do you jump to the conclusion that I am stirring up trouble and baiting the Diana loyalists? I have an opinon that is obviously very different than yours. Am I not allowed to have this opinon and share it just as you are allowed to share your love of Diana?

Did I click on the wrong link in my Favourites file? Have I landed at a Diana Fanatics only forum? Are those objective or even critical about Diana and her life not allowed to share their opinons anymore?

When I discuss Rania of Jordan's actions in the Jordanian forum no one there is telling me that I am stirring up trouble even though some people think Rania is not doing enough and others think she is doing just enough. We discuss it like adults. Is it because I've brought up some true points that the Diana loyalists don't want to admit to that I am being labelled a trouble maker?

You can choose to ignore my posts. That's fine with me. But don't say I'm stirring up trouble just because you don't like what you read. Sometimes the truth hurts and people can choose to believe what they want to.
 
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AHEM!!! I said to STOP IT, you two.
 
Iain said:
Just a thought.... If the Queen is the Duke of Lancaster does that mean Prince Philip is the Duchess?
LOL...the Crown is Duke of Lancaster, but the Sovereign is fount of honour and cannot be a peer since their dignity as King or Queen takes precedence over all other dignities of rank.

It is simply a style merged with the Crown, so there is no precedent for a spouse of the Sovereign to reflect anything but the rank and style either granted by letters patent (in the case of Prince Philip) or law (in the case of a female consort who automatically becomes Queen Consort).

Technically, as the fount of honour and source of all enoblement, I suppose it would be possible for the Sovereign to grant the style and title of "Duchess of Lancaster" to a female spouse who is not Queen Consort, but since Lancaster is not a separate dukedom in the peerage (it is a holding of the Crown alone), it would not be honourable to be granted a style lesser than Princess if Camilla cannot be Queen.
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Lets just call what she is HRH Camilla, Princess of Wales (after all she is anyway) :) just MHO
 
Elspeth said:
When Charles is king, William will automatically become Duke of Cornwall, so Camilla can't use the title Duchess of Cornwall. The title Duchess of Lancaster would be available for her, though.

Ah I see someone else thought of that too. That was my thinking. :)

But there are difficulties I'm told. Why is it possible for Camilla to now be known as Duchess of Cornwall; yet as Queen it would not be possible for her to be known as Duchess of Lancaster?

How does the Lancaster title as a susidiary title for the monarch differ from the Cornwall title that is a subsidiary title for the Prince of Wales?

Or, as Warren says, is this opening up another can of worms? ;)

edit: Below is britannica.com's explanation of the Duchy. I find it fascinating. It appears that the original Duke of Lancaster, John of Gaunt, married into the title rather than being created Duke by his father Edward III.

This prince, the fourth son of King Edward III and Queen Philippa, was born at Ghent (or Gaunt) in Flanders, in 1340. In his infancy, he was created Earl of Richmond and, by that title, admitted into the Order of the Garter upon the death of Thomas Holland, Earl of Kent, one of the original knights. In 1359, at Reading Abbey (Berks), he married Blanche, the younger of the two daughters and co-heirs of Henry, Duke of Lancaster, and upon the death of his father-in-law, in 1361, he was advanced to that Dukedom. He held also, in right of his wife, the Earldoms of Derby, Lincoln and Leicester, and the high office of Steward of England.

wikipedia.com's explanation

There were several Dukes of Lancaster in the 14th and early 15th Centuries. See also Duchy of Lancaster.

There were three creations of the Dukedom of Lancaster. The first Duke of Lancaster was Henry of Grosmont (c. 13061361), a great-grandson of Henry III; he was the 4th Earl of Lancaster before he was created the 1st Duke of Lancaster on March 6, 1351. His daughter Blanche married John of Gaunt, a son of King Edward III, and on November 13, 1362 John became the 1st Duke of Lancaster of the second creation. Upon John of Gaunt's death on February 4, 1399, the title passed to his son Henry Bolingbroke, Duke of Hereford, who became the 2nd Duke of Lancaster. Later that same year, Bolingbroke usurped the throne of England from King Richard II, ascending the throne as Henry IV. On November 10, 1399, the new king created his eldest son, Harry of Monmouth Duke of Lancaster. When Harry ascended the throne as Henry V in 1413, the title merged with the crown, with which it has remained ever since. The Duchy of Lancaster, however, continues to exist as a separate entity, one of only two Duchies in the United Kingdom.

It doesn't explain how the two duchies, Cornwall and Lancaster, are different though. So I'm still confused why Camilla can't be known as the Duchess of Lancaster upon Charles' accession.
 
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ysbel said:
...

But there are difficulties I'm told. Why is it possible for Camilla to now be known as Duchess of Cornwall; yet as Queen it would not be possible for her to be known as Duchess of Lancaster?

How does the Lancaster title as a susidiary title for the monarch differ from the Cornwall title that is a subsidiary title for the Prince of Wales?

...
The Dukedom of Lancaster is a peerage just like any other British dukedom. The monarch is the fount of honour who creates peerages, and the Lord Chancellor wrote in the Buckhurst Peerage Case (1876) that 'the fountain and source of all dignities cannot hold a dignity from himself. The dignity... terminates, not by virtue of any provisions in its creation but from the absolute incapacity of the sovereign to hold a dignity.'

Thus, the sovereign cannot be at the same time a duke in his own kingdom. Any title that merges with the Crown 'disappears'. For example, George VI ceased to be the Duke of York in 1936--the title merged with the Crown upon his accession.
 
More questions!

Mapple said:
Thus, the sovereign cannot be at the same time a duke in his own kingdom. Any title that merges with the Crown 'disappears'. For example, George VI ceased to be the Duke of York in 1936--the title merged with the Crown upon his accession.
Does this mean that although The Queen isn't the Duke of Lancaster because that dignity has merged with the Crown, she holds the Duchy of Lancaster? I thought that in Lancashire The Queen was referred to as 'The Duke of Lancaster'? Another point: the revenues of the Duchy don't flow to "the Crown" but to the Sovereign. This is very confusing!
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The estates and jurisdiction known as the Duchy of Lancaster have belonged to the reigning Monarch as Duke of Lancaster since the year 1399.

It is still commonplace to hear the toast 'The Queen, the Duke of Lancaster' throughout the Duchy.

Indeed Warren. All financial benefit does infact go solely to Her Majesty the Queen and not the Crown.

"MII"
 
Warren said:
Does this mean that although The Queen isn't the Duke of Lancaster because that dignity has merged with the Crown, she holds the Duchy of Lancaster?
Yes. It is her inherited property.

I thought that in Lancashire The Queen was referred to as 'The Duke of Lancaster'?
To be precise, 'The Queen, The Duke of Lancaster'. It is a matter of tradition, not law.

Warren said:
Another point: the revenues of the Duchy don't flow to "the Crown" but to the Sovereign. This is very confusing!
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Yes. The Duchy of Lancaster is the personal property of the British monarch and not a part of the Crown Estate.
 
Warren said:
Does this mean that although The Queen isn't the Duke of Lancaster because that dignity has merged with the Crown, she holds the Duchy of Lancaster? I thought that in Lancashire The Queen was referred to as 'The Duke of Lancaster'? Another point: the revenues of the Duchy don't flow to "the Crown" but to the Sovereign. This is very confusing!
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The Crown is fount of honour and cannot hold any dignity other than Sovereign as King or Queen. However, the Sovereign is, by custom, styled in the duchy as "The Queen, the Duke of Lancaster" as it is an ancient holding.

There is nothing, per se, preventing a King from granting the style and title of Duchess of Lancaster to his wife. It has never been necessary since the wife of the King is Queen Consort. Even in the case of Camilla, assuming she becomes Princess Consort, the granting of a ducal style merged with the Crown would be pointless.
 
Thanks

Thanks Mapple and branchg.

Your knowledge and contributions are much appreciated.

:) W
 
ysbel said:
How does the Lancaster title as a susidiary title for the monarch differ from the Cornwall title that is a subsidiary title for the Prince of Wales?

Or, as Warren says, is this opening up another can of worms? ;)

edit: Below is britannica.com's explanation of the Duchy. I find it fascinating.
It doesn't explain how the two duchies, Cornwall and Lancaster, are different though. So I'm still confused why Camilla can't be known as the Duchess of Lancaster upon Charles' accession.

The Dukedom of Cornwall is not a subsidiary title. It is automatically held by the Sovereign's eldest son and heir to the throne. The title "Prince of Wales and Earl of Chester" requires a new grant by the Sovereign once the title merges with the Crown (usually when the current holder assumes the throne).

For example, Charles is currently "HRH Prince of Wales, Duke of Cornwall, Duke of Rothesay, Earl of Chester". When he becomes King, William will automatically become "HRH the Duke of Cornwall" and "HRH the Prince William, Duke of Rothesay". At Charles' discretion, a new grant of "Prince of Wales and Earl of Chester" would be given to William as the new heir to the throne.

The Dukedom of Lancaster is a peerage that merged with the Crown centuries ago. The difference is the dukedom is a holding of the Crown alone, therefore, it can never be granted to anyone other than the Sovereign.
 
Henry VII was the leader of the House of Lancaster who won the Wars of the Roses over the House of York.

With regard to the monarch using the title Duke/Duchess of Lancaster I do think I remember reading the Queen Victoria used the title Duchess of Lancaster when travelling incognito through Europe on occasions.

The monarch's main personal income still comes from the Duchy of Lancaster estates which is another reason why people argue that the monarch is also the Duke of Lancaster. It is this income that provides her wealth while the Civil List is the cost of running the monarchy.

Should the monarchy be abolished the House of Windsor would still hold the estates of the Duchy of Lancster - unless the abolition was also to remove the rights of hereditary peerages to continue to hold their estates and to use their incomes for their personal gains. However the Civil List would be transferred to the running of the presidency or whatever was to replace the monarch as Head of State.
 
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chrissy57 said:
Should the monarchy be abolished the House of Windsor would still hold the estates of the Duchy of Lancster - unless the abolition was also to remove the rights of hereditary peerages to continue to hold their estates and to use their incomes for their personal gains. However the Civil List would be transferred to the running of the presidency or whatever was to replace the monarch as Head of State.

Interesting point. If Britian becomes a republic, they could follow Germany's lead and abolish all sovereign kingdoms in addition to the peerage. In that case, the Queen could become plain old "Elizabeth Mountbatten-Windsor, Duchess of Lancaster", similar to "Georg-Freidrich, Prince von Hohenzollern" is in Germany today.
 
She could also attempt to sue the government for all her estates back again. Or maybe just the 3bn pounds of their worth.

I believe the Greek Royal House attempted it when they were outsed.

Besides, the great house of Windsor has decades left in it yet.
 
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Re:

I believe the Greek Royal House attempted it when they were outsed
Thats a tricky one. Constantine never abdicated and he is still a King.
 
BeatrixFan said:
Thats a tricky one. Constantine never abdicated and he is still a King.

But then again, it may have been the Italian Royal House.
I always mix them up.

:confused:
 
wymanda said:
I have been having a think about this and a press release along these lines might make things clear if Charles & Camilla marry.

"In accordance with Letters Patent signed on ??/??/???? HM the Queen in accordance with the wishes of the Prince of Wales & Ms Parker-Bowles agrees to the bride being known, after the solemnization of the marriage, as HRH The Duchess of Cornwall. The bride will remain entitled to share in all the styles & titles of His Royal Highness but, in recognition of the life & work of Diana, Princess of Wales will not use or be known by the title of Princess of Wales."

What do other members think.

I think you could profitably go into business as a clairvoyant!:D

(except that it was done without Letters Patent, of course)
 
Elspeth said:
I think you could profitably go into business as a clairvoyant!:D

(except that it was done without Letters Patent, of course)

And that is a mighty big exception! To issue the letters patent described would be to deny Camilla her rightful title and rank as Princess of Wales in law, making the marriage morganatic and requiring an Act of Parliament confirming she could not succeed as Queen Consort.
 
BeatrixFan said:
Thats a tricky one. Constantine never abdicated and he is still a King.

In law, Constantine is not King because the Hellenic Republic was created by popular referendum in which the people rejected the monarchy as a form of government in favor of a parliamentary democracy.

By tradition and protocol among the royal houses, Constantine is granted the courtesy of his rank and title, but not precedence, as he no longer reigns. For all practical purposes, he is no longer King of the Hellenes except as a style.
 
when charles becomes king can he decide what camilla will be called
 
BeatrixFan said:
Thats a tricky one. Constantine never abdicated and he is still a King.

I agree Sam! He is still technically King...Sorry, I know, off topic... ;)

From Wikipedia:
Constantine was not formally exiled nor stripped of his property or citizenship after the referendum, but he was strongly discouraged from returning to Greece, and did not return until February 1981, and then only for the funeral of his mother, Queen Frederika. There were also legal disputes with the Greek state, since Constantine was unable or unwilling to pay the heavy taxes on his property in Greece. In the early 1990s Constantine started appearing more in the Greek media. In 1992 he concluded an agreement with the conservative government of Constantine Mitsotakis, ceding most of his land in Greece to a non-profit foundation in exchange for the former palace of Tatoi Palace in Athens and the right to export a large number of movables from Greece.
 
She will be Queen. I think that has been very clearly established by current law...

She has the use of all the female version titles to Charles's male versions...including Princess of Wales.
 
LOL. That came back! It would be wrong for Pavlos to use the King title and I sincerely hope he doesn't.
 
BeatrixFan said:
LOL. That came back! It would be wrong for Pavlos to use the King title and I sincerely hope he doesn't.

Absolutely...I agree 100%... :)

I just wanted to show my support on your post Sam, that is why I printed that information... :)
 
Duly Noted Darling. ;)
 
Josefine said:
when charles becomes king can he decide what camilla will be called

I think it will be a joint decision with Camilla.:)
 
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