Really? An interesting new thread would be: If Charles predeceases the Queen, and William cannot be Duke of Cornwall , then what does income the heir support himself through? Charles is pretty much funded through the Duchy, I believe. So back on topic...If William is not eligable for Duke of Cornwall, strike the 'Dowager bit'...HRH Camilla Duchess of Cornwall, if Charles pre-deseaces Camilla while Queen Elizabeth is still alive.
Yes. PoW and DoC are titles reserved for the eldest son of the Sovereign.
They'd have to do it before William accedes the throne, just in case he has a daughter followed by a son.
What happened to Victoria?
There's also another circumstance which can lead to a true female heir apparent. Say William has only daughters but dies before becoming King. His eldest daughter would be the heir apparent as nobody could displace her.
A change in the law would be just as valid before or after his accession, although I agree that sooner is better than later just in case.
As it is being discussed, it may happen sooner rather than later. Monarchy (Male Primogeniture): 8 May 2008: House of Commons debates (TheyWorkForYou.com)A change in the law would be just as valid before or after his accession, although I agree that sooner is better than later just in case. I don't think the discussion will be opened unless that happens, myself. There's just not any reason other than future possibilities right now.
I agree. It was not easy for CP Victoria to step up to the plate when her younger brother had been the heir and it was very hard for him to suddenly become the "spare.
Point taken. I was in error. However, as I also said, "gossip" has it that the King continues to disagree with the law change. Family dynamics would have to be affected by such a stance.How was it hard for him to suddenly become the "spare" when he was seven months old? I doubt he even remembers being the Crown Prince.
My friend Nancy who has travelled in Germany tells me the Germans think Carl Philip was robbed of his birthright, though.
The Germans?...or maybe some Germans or a German??
Or do Germans in general even care about the succession in Sweden?
Iowabelle, as queen Silvia of Sweden has been the first "German" queen for ages (we got rid of all our queens in 1918) a lot of people here in Germany are interested in her and her family.
Denying the DofW the style of HRH was a choice. That's the point. If you argue that Camilla deserves it because of Charles' position, then it should apply to the other lady too. I think there are similarities between the two women. Both ladies had relationships with a PoW, although Edward VIII was not a married man, so yes, I suppose there is a difference there.Divorce was a social disgrace and unacceptable to the Church of England in 1936...
Divorce was a social disgrace and unacceptable to the Church of England in 1936. It was unthinkable for a twice-divorced woman to marry The King or become a member of the royal family, never mind Queen. So, Edward had no choice but to abdicate the throne due to his own selfishness and refusal to do his duty. What choice did George VI have but to deny her royal rank as a consequence?
Camilla is a totally different situation in that she is already married to the heir to the throne and will automatically be Queen when the time comes. Whether Parliament will be prepared to introduce legislation will depend greatly on public opinion at the time. If opposition is strong to her being Queen, it can be done.
I may be totally wrong but I believe I read that Camilla, even if she is not called by that title, she is already Princess of Wales, by virtue of her marriage to Prince Charles. Also when Prince Charles becomes King, Camilla will be Queen consort.
I personally believe that since she is P Charles wife she has earned the titles and the privilege her position gives her.
As it is, it's simply a style that sons of monarchs, and their wives unless the marriage is morganatic, are entitled to.
What is the definition of morganatic marriage now? Traditionally it has been the marriage of two social unequals. As Camilla is a commoner, is their marriage not already morganatic as well as all the other "commoner" and Royal titled marriages not only in Britain but throughout the Royal Families of Europe? I am very curious about all of your perspectives.
Yes, Camilla is Princess of Wales, but she's choosing to be known by another of her titles. When Charles becomes King, she'll automatically be the Queen Consort unless legislation to the contrary has been passed before his accession.
What is the definition of morganatic marriage now? Traditionally it has been the marriage of two social unequals. As Camilla is a commoner, is their marriage not already morganatic as well as all the other "commoner" and Royal titled marriages not only in Britain but throughout the Royal Families of Europe? I am very curious about all of your perspectives.