You cant be a woman in the German ruling sytem and be head of the House. I am also assuming that women can't rule in the German rulling system? This is a question as I don't follow German royalty to that detail but now that I think about it...there have never been any woman rulers, is that correct?
Since Germany subscribed to Salic Law, you are correct.
This law has had a formative influence on the tradition of statute law in Central Europe, especially in the German states, France, Belgium, the Netherlands, parts of Italy, Austria and Hungary, Romania, and the Balkans.
It regulates succession according to sex, barring women from inheriting any sovereign estate, title or ancestral lands.
The basis of the law was to preserve the noble bloodlines through male inheritance in perpetuity. A female would marry and take the name of her husband's house, and her children would continue her husband's bloodline but not her own.. thus, she was prevented from "tainting" the blood of her father with the blood of her husband.. nor was she allowed to inherit any of his ancestral property or title.
On very rare occasions, exceptions were made, but only if ALL the male line branches had been exhausted, including distant male relatives. In such cases, the closest female descendant of the last reigning titleholder was allowed to inherit, but she was not allowed to reign. That duty fell to her husband, and then to their sons and so forth.
Though Britain does practice male-preference primogeniture, they never fully subscribed to the Salic Law which dominated both France and Germany's statutes of inheritance.
And as in my previous post, membership of a royal European house is based solely on patrilineal descent.. which makes it virtually impossible for a female to be the head of any royal house.