O-H Anglophile
Heir Apparent
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So it was told to me that Anne's children couldn't be Prince or Princess because they didn't come from a male heir line. Let's just say for arguments sake that the Queen only had one child, Anne, and Anne in turn only had one child, Zara. That would make Anne 2nd in line to the throne and Zara next. Would Zara be a Princess at birth then? Or would she not have any title until she became Queen? Man this is exhausting...lol. ?
So before Elizabeth became Queen her children were not considered Prince or Princess?
It is possible that should Anne have been the Queen's only child and heir, that the Queen would have issued Letters Patent been granted Peter and Zara the titles of Prince and Princess.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_prince
"On 22 October 1948, George VI issued letters patent allowing the children of his daughter Princess Elizabeth, Duchess of Edinburgh, and son-in-law Philip, Duke of Edinburgh, to assume princely titles and the style Royal Highness;[8] they would not have been entitled to them ordinarily, as grandchildren in the female line, until their mother ascended the throne as Queen Elizabeth II. Thus the current Prince of Wales was styled HRH Prince Charles of Edinburgh until his mother's accession. Otherwise the children would have been styled Earl of Merioneth and Lady Anne Mountbatten, respectively."
If you have more questions about titles we should take this to the appropriate thread.
Edit-post has been moved to appropriate thread by mod.
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