Agreed. He's not Prince Harry! It'll probably be a lot about his work with the All England Club and his various charities.
Agreed. That does not, however, dampen my enthusiasm in the slightest. I'm actually kind of excited to read this one.
Agreed. He's not Prince Harry! It'll probably be a lot about his work with the All England Club and his various charities.
https://www.dailymail.co.uk/femail/...pent-six-months-crafting-engagement-ring.html
I believe if their relationship had not ended in marriage; she would have found someone else sooner or later.
I never believed it was a love match on both sides.
I know back in the day divorce was looked upon much differently then today. If it weren't, then King George wouldn't have had to abdicate the throne to marry Wallis Simpson, while right now King Charles sits on the throne as a divorcee, married to a woman who is also a divorcee.
My question is, despite the times back then of divorce being more taboo, why was King George ever made to abdicate to marry Wallis Simpson? Wasn't a good part of the reason that Henry the VIII split from the Catholic Church, and The Church of England was ulitmately formed, due to the fact that Henry VIII wanted the church to annul his marriage to Catherine of Aragon, and the Pope refused to do it. Without an official annulment, he couldn't get married again. The Pope refused to grant the annulment on grounds of Catholic doctrine: marriage is for life and there was no theological reason to dissolve this one. Henry therefore named himself head of the church in England and annulled the marriage himself.
I mean the religion of the royal family was basically formed by a King wanting to dump one wife and move on to another. I don't know why Edward was so ostracized for wanting to marry a divorcee.
I know back in the day divorce was looked upon much differently than today. If it weren't, then King George wouldn't have had to abdicate the throne to marry Wallis Simpson, while right now King Charles sits on the throne as a divorcee, married to a woman who is also a divorcee.
My question is, despite the times back then of divorce being more taboo, why was King George ever made to abdicate to marry Wallis Simpson? Wasn't a good part of the reason that Henry VIII split from the Catholic Church, and The Church of England was ultimately formed, due to the fact that Henry VIII wanted the church to annul his marriage to Catherine of Aragon, and the Pope refused to do it. Without an official annulment, he couldn't get married again. The Pope refused to grant the annulment on grounds of Catholic doctrine: marriage is for life and there was no theological reason to dissolve this one. Henry, therefore, named himself head of the church in England and annulled the marriage himself.
I mean the religion of the royal family was basically formed by a King wanting to dump one wife and move on to another. I don't know why Edward was so ostracized for wanting to marry a divorcee.
I mean the religion of the royal family was basically formed by a King wanting to dump one wife and move on to another. I don't know why Edward was so ostracized for wanting to marry a divorcee.
George VI didn't abdicate. Edward VIII did. He also didn't have to abdicate. He had three choices; keep the crown and ditch Wallis, ditch the crown and keep Wallis, or marry her anyway and deal with the constitutional crisis that was sure to erupt.
He chose to abdicate because 1) he probably saw it as the best chance to save the monarchy and his family and 2) he was selfish and never showed any interest in being king and saw this as a way out. Also, the sovereign, be they male or female, is the Defender of the Faith and the head of the Church of England. He couldn't be King, anointed by the Church, and marry a divorcee, particularly since divorcees couldn't and still can't be married in the CoE. Hence why neither Charles nor Anne's second marriages were celebrated in the CoE. Anne married in the Church of Scotland, which permitted divorcees to remarry, and Charles had a civil wedding with an Anglican blessing afterward.
I know back in the day divorce was looked upon much differently then today. If it weren't, then King George wouldn't have had to abdicate the throne to marry Wallis Simpson, while right now King Charles sits on the throne as a divorcee, married to a woman who is also a divorcee.
My question is, despite the times back then of divorce being more taboo, why was King George ever made to abdicate to marry Wallis Simpson? Wasn't a good part of the reason that Henry the VIII split from the Catholic Church, and The Church of England was ulitmately formed, due to the fact that Henry VIII wanted the church to annul his marriage to Catherine of Aragon, and the Pope refused to do it. Without an official annulment, he couldn't get married again. The Pope refused to grant the annulment on grounds of Catholic doctrine: marriage is for life and there was no theological reason to dissolve this one. Henry therefore named himself head of the church in England and annulled the marriage himself.
I mean the religion of the royal family was basically formed by a King wanting to dump one wife and move on to another. I don't know why Edward was so ostracized for wanting to marry a divorcee.
No-one was forced to abdicate the throne to marry Wallis Simpson. Edward VIII (not George VI who was the new King) CHOSE to abdicate the throne and chose to marry Wallis.
I did not realize that Wallis's nationality of being an American was held against her. Did the nobility hold this against her?One of the main reasons why Edward was ostracised for wishing to marry Wallis Simpson was that she wasn’t divorced at the time the two of them started their affair. She continued in fact to live with her husband Ernest Simpson for years after the affair began.
The middle and working classes in England between the wars would have regarded that as disgraceful behaviour on all counts. They especially disliked the idea of divorce, and as both classes made up the majority of the British population as a whole their views had to be taken into account. There were also the views of the Realms to be considered.
Wallis’s nationality to a certain extent and her past history were held against her by those in the know. Also the fact that she had been married not once but twice, with both husbands living. She was regarded by many as an adventuress.
I did not realize that Wallis's nationality of being an American was held against her. Did the nobility hold this against her?
It would have been unexpected, but, had the Prince of Wales announced that he wanted to marry one of the Vanderbilts, say, and there had never been a breath of scandal attached to the woman concerned, I think the marriage would have been accepted.
The marriage might have been accepted but then the government would have found another way to remove Edward. The government was determined he had to go and Wallis was simply the excuse they found.
There were concerns about his political views, but there was never any suggestion of getting rid of him. How could there have been? It wasn't 1688. There was no way that they could have removed him. I think some people were probably very relieved when he chose to abdicate to be with Wallis, but she wasn't an excuse to get rid of him. She just wasn't acceptable to the society of the time. Divorce wasn't socially acceptable in 1936, for anyone, and especially the Supreme Governor of the Church of England.
People might not have been overly keen on an American queen, but they would have accepted her, had she not been divorced and not been his mistress.
The aristocracy is different ball game than the monarchy when it came to that, some members of the aristocracy were simply marrying for money. Royals could and did befriend, have affairs with some upper crust Americans as many have done, but marry at that time, unlikely.Quite a few American women had married into the British aristocracy. The Countess of Grantham in Downton Abbey is a famous fictional example! Real life examples include Jennie Jerome and Consuelo Vanderbilt. The Warfields of Baltimore weren't in their social league, admittedly, but I think an American woman might have been accepted had she not been a divorcee, and also not been having a full-on relationship with the Prince of Wales before they were married.
It would have been unexpected, but, had the Prince of Wales announced that he wanted to marry one of the Vanderbilts, say, and there had never been a breath of scandal attached to the woman concerned, I think the marriage would have been accepted.
There were discussions among government ministers and other members of the government (my great-uncle was one at the time) and it was on how to remove him. There was even discussion about revealing his lack of care about state secrets or finding some excuse to show him unsuitable. Then Wallis sued for her second divorce and they had their excuse.
It was certainly being discussed among ministers and others (not at any 'official meeting' of course) from about Easter and certainly by the summer of 1936.
there is no evidence that I know of, that the PTB /govt wanted to get rid of Edward at that stage. Wallis was the main reason. She was not acceptable to the public - or the upper classes, really. and at that stage the Church would not have accepted a divorced woman as queen...