You have your opinion & I have my. My opinion is why take away the Royal Highness title but away, but maintain as mother of a future king, her precedence shall remain. What's the sense in that? Best believe, if Diana had lived to the reign of either Charles or William she would've certainly received her title back. And your argument saying Diana's precedence was accorded due to her being the mother of Prince William was a courtsey from the Queen, not a right just like that of the HRH title. Her precedence remained by the will of the Sovereign & no more. The Queen could have easily removed her precedence as third in the land.
I respect your opinion and am really interested to hear it.
To me, it is sounds logical that once Diana was no longer married to a British Prince, she lost the styles and titles she had acquired by virtue of that marriage. Since she didn't stop being mother of the future King, she retained her precedence. Of course, the Queen could have at any point altered that precedence or remove it altogether. I do agree it is possible Diana would have received her Royal Highness back during the reigns of either Charles or William had she survived.
And say what you will, but Diana was no longer a Royal Highness & Princess Michael of Kent was. And like many constitutional scholars have pointed out, theoretically she would be "obliged" to curtsy to her husband and own children. Now, would she in theory? I doubt it. I'm sure Sarah, Duchess of York doesn't curtsy to her daughters in private, but I'm very sure if participating in any kind of state occasion where formality is closely watched & observed, she would.
Now, it has nothing to do with what I say or what scholars think: the
fact is Diana was the third lady in the Kingdom and thus in no shape or form obliged to curtsey to those with lower precedence, Royal Highness or not. Zara Phillips is not a Royal Highness but her precedence is higher than, say, that of Princess Michael, which is why you'll never see Zara curtseying to her.
Whatever occasion it was, from State Dinners to Coronation, Diana would not curtsey to those with lower precedence; they, on the other hand, might be obliged to do just that - and that included quite a few Royal Highnesses such as Princess Michael, the Duchess of Gloucester, the Duchess of Kent, Princess Alexandra, Princess Beatrice, Princess Eugenie, etc.
And the book I was talking about was called The Queen: A Biography of Elizabeth II, written by Ben Pimlot. In one of the chapters it explicitly talked about Diana's loss of title & how she would no loner would receive certain priviledges accorded to those who hold the prefix of Royal Highness.
I do not contest that; Diana certainly lost certain privileges associated with her former titles and style. Then again, do you think it's logical for a former wife to enjoy privileges she had acquired by virtue of her marriage to her former husband? It doesn't make sense to me.