Jo of Palatine
Heir Apparent
- Joined
- Feb 7, 2006
- Messages
- 3,323
- City
- Munich
- Country
- Germany
I've been thinking for quite some time about how Charles might feel about his title of "Prince of Wales". It's a rather unfortunate title when you think about the history of its creation and Charles is a historian. When he was invested as Prince of Wales in the sixties, he was actually studying history, so I'm sure he is much more aware of the historic background than most other people, probably including his own mother.
Charles surely is realizing that the monarchy nowadays has to have an integrating feeling to it if it is to survive the next fifty years. So how does a controversial title like "Prince of Wales" fit into the next decades? For Welsh traditionalists the title is not that of their souverain, but a title once newly created for the heir of the man who had their last souverain prince tortured and slain in public. Charles as "The Prince of Wales" is a constant reminder of the way Wales once lost its souverainity - a contraproductive symbol in times of national movements in all parts of the UK.
I believe there were polls that claimed that a majority of Scots would still ask Charles to become their king if the kingdom of Scotland separated from its union with England, Wales and Northern Ireland - he is generally accepted as the Duke of Rothesay and Prince of Scotland as even apart from the Act of Succession which barred catholic Stuart descendent from claiming the throne he is nowadays the next in line from both catholic and protestant Stuart lines when you look at the laws valid before the Act of Succession became law.
But would the Welsh ask Charles to still be their prince? I doubt it. Okay, through his Tudor ancestry (Owen Tudor to Margaret Tudor, queen of Scots), Charles inherited a bit of the blood of the last souverain princes of Wales.
Does this interests Charles at all? My guess is that he realizes this. That he may not be too happy with the fact that his English sons are called prince William and prince Harry "of Wales" as if "Wales" was the same as "York" or "Wessex" from the way people feel there about their history.
So my idea is that Charles might want to keep the title of "Prince of Wales" after ascending to the throne with his wife Camilla as "Princess Consort of Wales" in addition to his being the king of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. And if this is not possible for political reasons, that he will at least refrain from creating his son William "Prince of Wales" but let him be HRH The Prince William, Duke of Cornwall, Duke of Rothesay, prince of the UK, prince of Scotland, prince of Wales. (plus all the other titles). The fact that the title "Duke of Rothesay" still exists and is used in Scotland shows IMHO that the idea of a kingdom of Scotland is still alive for the Royal Family of the UK. Why treat Wales differently, then? Why not acknowledge that the princes/ses of the UK and of Scotland are princes/ses of Wales as well? All of them?
(Dear Mods, if there is a thread you believe this post to be more suitably placed, please merge the threads then. Thank you. )
Charles surely is realizing that the monarchy nowadays has to have an integrating feeling to it if it is to survive the next fifty years. So how does a controversial title like "Prince of Wales" fit into the next decades? For Welsh traditionalists the title is not that of their souverain, but a title once newly created for the heir of the man who had their last souverain prince tortured and slain in public. Charles as "The Prince of Wales" is a constant reminder of the way Wales once lost its souverainity - a contraproductive symbol in times of national movements in all parts of the UK.
I believe there were polls that claimed that a majority of Scots would still ask Charles to become their king if the kingdom of Scotland separated from its union with England, Wales and Northern Ireland - he is generally accepted as the Duke of Rothesay and Prince of Scotland as even apart from the Act of Succession which barred catholic Stuart descendent from claiming the throne he is nowadays the next in line from both catholic and protestant Stuart lines when you look at the laws valid before the Act of Succession became law.
But would the Welsh ask Charles to still be their prince? I doubt it. Okay, through his Tudor ancestry (Owen Tudor to Margaret Tudor, queen of Scots), Charles inherited a bit of the blood of the last souverain princes of Wales.
Does this interests Charles at all? My guess is that he realizes this. That he may not be too happy with the fact that his English sons are called prince William and prince Harry "of Wales" as if "Wales" was the same as "York" or "Wessex" from the way people feel there about their history.
So my idea is that Charles might want to keep the title of "Prince of Wales" after ascending to the throne with his wife Camilla as "Princess Consort of Wales" in addition to his being the king of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. And if this is not possible for political reasons, that he will at least refrain from creating his son William "Prince of Wales" but let him be HRH The Prince William, Duke of Cornwall, Duke of Rothesay, prince of the UK, prince of Scotland, prince of Wales. (plus all the other titles). The fact that the title "Duke of Rothesay" still exists and is used in Scotland shows IMHO that the idea of a kingdom of Scotland is still alive for the Royal Family of the UK. Why treat Wales differently, then? Why not acknowledge that the princes/ses of the UK and of Scotland are princes/ses of Wales as well? All of them?
(Dear Mods, if there is a thread you believe this post to be more suitably placed, please merge the threads then. Thank you. )