Iluvbertie
Imperial Majesty
- Joined
- Jun 29, 2004
- Messages
- 14,526
- City
- Bathurst
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- Australia
Yes. No. Maybe. It doesn't have anything to do with equal primogeniture succession, except that equal primogeniture succession means that the issue will have to be confronted slightly more often. There wasn't equal primogeniture succession in 1952, yet there's still the House of Windsor instead of the House of Mountbatten, Edinburgh, or Schleswig-Holstein-Sonderburg-Glücksburg.
Elizabeth though was born as a member of the House of Windsor and so there would have been no change in 1952. Any change would take place with the accession of Charles - just as in 1901 Victoria was the last monarch of the House of Hannover and Edward VII became the first King of the House of Saxe-Coburgh Gotha. Same with Mary II who reigned as a member of the House of Stuart and not the House of Orange - although if they had had a child then the royal house would presumably have changed to Orange. Mary I reigned as a Tudor not a Hapsburg despite being married to one - but again if they had had a child then the royal house would have changed to Hapsburg.
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